[INDOLOGY] Anusvara plus nasal

[Franco]

Dear Dominik,
This is improbable. The additional anusvaras occur far too often and also in manuscripts that are very carefully written. I once toyed with the idea that this reflects the actual pronunciation in a certain area in a certain time, that is, that vowels before nasals were nasalized. I never found any evidence for such an assumption.
Best wishes,
Eli


Sent from my iPad

> On 10.06.2014, at 08:36, Dominik Wujastyk <wujastyk at gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> Without evidence to the contrary, I would normally put this down to scribal carelessness.
> 
> Dominik Wujastyk
> 
> 
>> On 9 June 2014 17:56, <jacob at fabularasa.dk> wrote:
>> Dear list,
>> 
>> I wonder if anyone could explain the occurence in some Sanskrit manuscripts (possibly influenced by vernacularisms) of adding an anusvara before a nasal. I have attached three examples containing the following readings:
>> 
>> Ex. 1: तंन् (तंम् before sandhi)
>> Ex. 2: महाश्मशांने
>> Ex. 3: दांन
>> 
>> Any suggestions or clarifications would be greatly appreciated.
>> 
>> Kind regards,
>> Jacob
>> 
>> Jacob Schmidt-Madsen
>> Assistant Teacher
>> Department of Indology
>> University of Copenhagen
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