privative a with finite verb

[Jonathan Silk]

Friends,

I have the impression that I have seen, in Buddhist texts at least,
privative a affixed to finite verbs (but my memory gets worse and worse, and
maybe I'm imagining this...). Now I have a passage which may need
emendation, or perhaps not, if it can be demonstrated that such forms exist,
whether Paninian or not. (This may even be discussed in Wackernagel, for
instance, but I'm not sure I  would even know how to look for it...). Any
advice will be much appreciated!

JAS