Sanskrit and PIE

[Arun Gupta]

A footnote in J.P. Mallory (In search of the Indo-Europeans) says that Anna
Davies carried out a cursory examination of the Greek vocabulary, which
revealed that less than 40 per cent of it could be ascribed a transparent
Indo-European etymology, 8 per cent had established non-Greek origins and
about 52 per cent had no clear etymology.

This is a footnote to the statement that "Yet the linguistic evidence taken
as a whole does indicate that the Greeks did borrow a considerable number of
elements from a non-Greek language."

The question is -- what is the equivalent statistic for Vedic Sanskrit ?

Thank you,
-arun gupta